• funkless_eck@sh.itjust.worksEnglish
    2·
    3 months ago

    at a casual glance, it looks like a significant difference is that the Latin ellided from a palatal consonant and the Greek from a bilabial to end up at the same phoneme.

    • Lvxferre [he/him]@mander.xyzMEnglish
      2·
      3 months ago

      Latin [w] is labiovelar, just like [gʷ]; no palatal in this case. The difference is mostly order of operations:

      • Latin - lenition, then loss of the velar articulation: [gʷ]→[w]→[β]
      • Greek - loss of the velar articulation, then lenition: [gʷ]→[b]→[β]

      then [β] evolving into [v] in both.