By: u/redheaded_olive12349
In my specific faith, I believe that the bible was mistranslated or misinterpreted over time.
Such things as homosexuality and stuff (you know all kinds of stuff) were never condemned in the original bible.
We believe that early Christians never believed these things and that was the original bible.
It was probably mistranslated from the jump, sometimes intentionally.
The book of Acts properly contains a mistranslation in its retelling of the first council of Jerusalem. In it James (I think it was) quotes the Septuagint as justification for converting the gentiles. That passage of the Septuagint is a mistranslation and is quite irrelevant if properly translated.
Oh? I’ve not gotten that far in my translation exploration, I honestly feel it’s more than a lifetime of work, not being a polyglot in Aramaic, Hebrew, Greek and Latin/Italian. I’d be very interested in learning more, if you care to share.
It is James in Acts 15:13-18 that quotes Amos 9:11-12.
The Septuagint translation says (paraphrased)
Whereas a better (paraphrased) translation of Amos 9 is:
So the referenced scripture is about a restored kingdom of David (re)possessing what’s left of Edom, and rebuilding Israel. If you look at the subsequent verses, for example: I will restore the fortunes of my people Israel, and they shall rebuild the ruined cities and inhabit them. It’s not about the gentiles seeking the Lord. The mistranslation comes from “Edom” being translated as Adam (no vowels in Hebrew) so a “remnant of Edom” being mistranslated as the descendants of Adam.
I think the idea of James quoting a Greek version of Scripture at the first council of Jerusalem, in a discussion about whether to accept Greeks no less, to be rather suspect. It seems most likely to me that this account is being retrojected from considerable distance.